Introduction
Studying for the Kuwait Prometric Nursing Exam will require you to know more than just memorizing facts. There are many areas tested through the Kuwait Prometric exam that demonstrate real-world practices in many of the hospital environments that nurses encounter, such as patient safety, emergency preparedness, various aspects of pharmacology, infection control practices, and critical decision-making in critical care settings. To help nurses develop confidence and become familiar with the exam format, this blog discusses a series of high-yield questions that are written in the Kuwait Prometric-style, along with explanations of why each answer is correct. Practicing these types of questions will help you develop critical thinking skills and give you the ability to select the best possible answer when put under exam conditions.
1. A nurse receives a report on four patients. Which patient should be assessed first?
A. A 50-year-old post-op abdominal surgery patient with a heart rate of 110 bpm.
B. A 30-year-old with pneumonia who is newly confused and restless.
C. A 65-year-old with heart failure and 2+ bilateral pitting edema.
D. A 40-year-old with a chest tube who has 50 mL of serosanguinous drainage in 2 hours.
Answer: B. Confusion and restlessness are early signs of hypoxia (Airway/Breathing).
2. A patient with a tension pneumothorax is being prepared for emergency needle decompression. Which site should the nurse anticipate?
A. 5th intercostal space, mid-axillary line.
B. 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line.
C. 4th intercostal space, posterior-axillary line.
D. Above the 1st rib.
Answer: B. (Standard site for emergency needle decompression in adults).
3. During a blood transfusion, the patient reports chills, back pain, and shortness of breath. After stopping the infusion, what is the nurse's next action?
A. Notify the physician immediately.
B. Change the IV tubing and run Normal Saline at a KVO rate.
C. Send the remaining blood bag to the lab.
D. Document the reaction in the patient's chart.
Answer: B. You must maintain IV access with fresh tubing to prevent the blood in the old tubing from entering the patient while flushing.
4. A patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Assess pupil reaction.
B. Prepare for endotracheal intubation.
C. Monitor urine output.
D. Administer IV Mannitol.
Answer: B. "GCS less than 8, intubate." The patient cannot protect their airway.
5. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which area of the heart is affected?
A. Anterior Wall.
B. Lateral Wall.
C. Inferior Wall.
D. Septal Wall.
Answer: C. These leads correspond to the inferior wall, usually involving the Right Coronary Artery.
6. A doctor orders 1000 mL of 0.9% NS over 8 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. Calculate the gtt/min.
A. 21 gtt/min
B. 31 gtt/min
C. 42 gtt/min
D. 125 gtt/min
Answer: B. Calculation: $\frac{1000 \times 15}{8 \times 60} = \frac{15000}{480} \approx 31.25$.
7. A patient is receiving Heparin. Which lab value is most critical to monitor?
A. PT
B. INR
C. aPTT
D. Platelet count
Answer: C. aPTT is used for Heparin; PT/INR is for Warfarin.
8. Which medication is the priority for a patient experiencing Anaphylactic Shock?
A. Diphenhydramine IV.
B. Epinephrine IM.
C. Methylprednisolone IV.
D. Albuterol nebulizer.
Answer: B. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis.
9. A patient on Digoxin reports blurred yellow vision and nausea. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Check the patient's blood pressure.
B. Administer an antiemetic.
C. Check the patient's apical pulse and hold the dose.
D. Call the lab for a Digoxin level.
Answer: C. These are classic signs of Digoxin toxicity.
10. What is the antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity in a pre-eclamptic patient?
A. Protamine Sulfate.
B. Vitamin K.
C. Calcium Gluconate.
D. Naloxone.
Answer: C.
11. A 2-year-old is admitted with suspected Epiglottitis. Which action is contraindicated?
A. Administering humidified oxygen.
B. Using a tongue blade to visualize the throat.
C. Keeping the child in a tripod position.
D. Setting up an emergency intubation tray.
Answer: B. Visualizing the throat can cause total airway obstruction.
12. An infant with Tetralogy of Fallot is having a "Tet Spell" (hypercyanotic episode). What is the priority position?
A. High-Fowler's.
B. Knee-Chest.
C. Supine with legs elevated.
D. Left Lateral.
Answer: B. This increases systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow.
13. A pregnant woman at 32 weeks presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio Placentae.
B. Placenta Previa.
C. Ruptured Uterus.
D. Ectopic Pregnancy.
Answer: B. Painless bleeding is the hallmark of Placenta Previa.
14. A postpartum mother is saturated with blood pads every 15 minutes. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Call the doctor.
B. Start an IV line.
C. Massage the fundus.
D. Check the blood pressure.
Answer: C. Fundal massage is the immediate intervention for uterine atony (postpartum hemorrhage).
15. At 1 minute after birth, a newborn has a heart rate of 110, slow/irregular respirations, some flexion of extremities, grimace, and a pink body with blue extremities. What is the APGAR score?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: B. HR(2) + Resp(1) + Tone(1) + Reflex(1) + Color(1) = 6.
16. Which PPE is required for a nurse entering a room of a patient with Tuberculosis?
A. Surgical mask, gloves.
B. Gown, gloves, goggles.
C. N95 respirator mask.
D. No PPE is needed if staying 3 feet away.
Answer: C. TB requires Airborne Precautions.
17. A patient is on Droplet Precautions for Meningitis. What is the maximum distance for droplet travel?
A. 1 foot.
B. 3–6 feet.
C. 10 feet.
D. 20 feet.
Answer: B.
18. A nurse is delegating tasks to a Nursing Assistant (UAP). Which task is appropriate?
A. Assessing a post-op patient’s pain.
B. Teaching a patient how to use an incentive spirometer.
C. Taking vital signs on a stable patient.
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of insulin.
Answer: C. UAPs cannot Assess, Teach, or Evaluate (ATE).
19. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of Nosocomial Infections?
A. Using sterile gloves for all procedures.
B. Proper hand hygiene.
C. Isolating all elderly patients.
D. Routine administration of antibiotics.
Answer: B.
20. A patient with a head injury develops "Diabetes Insipidus." The nurse should monitor for:
A. Hyperglycemia.
B. Low urine specific gravity.
C. High urine specific gravity.
D. Fluid volume excess.
Answer: B. DI causes massive dilute urine output (low specific gravity).
21. A patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. Which oxygen flow rate is most appropriate?
A. 1–2 L/min.
B. 5–6 L/min.
C. 10 L/min.
D. 15 L/min.
Answer: A. High oxygen levels can suppress the "hypoxic drive" in COPD patients.
22. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with a "Tall Peaked T-wave" on an ECG?
A. Hypokalemia.
B. Hyperkalemia.
C. Hypocalcemia.
D. Hypercalcemia.
Answer: B.
23. A patient is admitted with a "Tension Pneumothorax." Which clinical finding is most expected?
A. Tracheal deviation to the affected side.
B. Tracheal deviation to the unaffected side.
C. Hypertension.
D. Bradycardia.
Answer: B. Pressure pushes the trachea toward the opposite (healthy) side.
24. The nurse is caring for a patient with a "Cushing’s Triad." What are the components?
A. Tachycardia, Hypertension, Bradypnea.
B. Bradycardia, Hypertension (widening pulse pressure), Irregular Respirations.
C. Hypotension, Bradycardia, Fever.
D. Tachycardia, Hypotension, Tachypnea.
Answer: B. This indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
25. A patient is receiving TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition). If the TPN bag runs out before the next one arrives, what should the nurse hang?
A. 0.9% Normal Saline.
B. Lactated Ringer’s.
C. 10% Dextrose in Water (D10W).
D. Sterile Water.
Answer: C. This prevents rebound hypoglycemia.
26. Which site is most preferred for an IM injection in an infant less than 12 months?
A. Dorsogluteal.
B. Deltoid.
C. Vastus Lateralis.
D. Ventrogluteal.
Answer: C.
27. A patient with a femur fracture suddenly develops shortness of breath and petechiae on the chest. What does the nurse suspect?
A. Pulmonary Embolism.
B. Fat Embolism Syndrome.
C. Pneumonia.
D. Myocardial Infarction.
Answer: B. Petechiae on the chest/neck are a key differentiator for Fat Embolism.
28. What is the priority intervention for a patient with "Autonomic Dysreflexia"?
A. Administer pain medication.
B. Raise the head of the bed to 90 degrees (High-Fowler's).
C. Catheterize the patient immediately.
D. Notify the doctor.
Answer: B. Elevating the head is the first step to help lower blood pressure.
29. A nurse is caring for a patient with "Pyloric Stenosis." What is the classic clinical sign?
A. Currant jelly stools.
B. Projectile vomiting.
C. Steatorrhea.
D. Bile-stained vomitus.
Answer: B.
30. Which position is best for a patient after a "Liver Biopsy"?
A. Left Lateral.
B. Right Lateral.
C. Supine.
D. Semi-Fowler's.
Answer: B. The patient lies on the right side to apply pressure to the biopsy site to prevent bleeding.
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Conclusion
Achieving success on the Kuwait Prometric Exam requires consistent practice, knowledge of the fundamentals of nursing, and the ability to apply this knowledge in situations where priorities are needed. You will gain a better understanding of each question and improve your chances of performing well on the exam by using these items not only as tests of your knowledge, but to identify and explain the rationale for the correct answer to each question. With targeted preparation, increased frequency of repetition and maintenance of confidence in clinical fundamentals, passing the Kuwait Prometric Examination is definitely achievable.
