Introduction
Select-All-That-Apply questions are often the most intimidating part of the NCLEX. They demand sharp judgment, strong clinical understanding, and the ability to recognise patterns quickly. A single missed option can change an entire answer, which is why mastering SATA is essential for exam success. At Tiju’s Academy, we help students build confidence through systematic practice, clear breakdowns, and real NCLEX-style reasoning. The SATA set below is designed to strengthen clinical thinking, reinforce key concepts, and help you approach these questions with clarity instead of fear.
1. The nurse is caring for a patient with a T4 spinal cord injury who suddenly complains of a severe pounding headache. The patient is diaphoretic and has a BP of 210/112 mmHg. Which interventions are appropriate?
A. Place the patient flat in bed immediately.
B. Palpate the bladder for distention.
C. Administer hydralazine IV as ordered.
D. Perform a rectal exam to check for impaction immediately.
E. Loosen tight clothing around the waist and neck.
F. Assess for a kink in the Foley catheter tubing.
Answer: B, C, E, F
2. A patient with acute pancreatitis has a positive Turner’s sign and Cullen’s sign. Which additional findings would the nurse anticipate?
A. Serum Amylase of 900 U/L.
B. Hypocalcemia.
C. Hypermagnesemia.
D. Left upper quadrant pain radiating to the back.
E. Rigid, board-like abdomen.
F. Steatorrhea.
Answer: A, B, D, F
3. The nurse is caring for a patient with a chest tube connected to a dry suction water seal system. Which observations require immediate intervention?
A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
B. Gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber.
C. 150 mL of bright red drainage in the last hour.
D. Fluid in the water seal chamber fluctuates with respiration.
E. Subcutaneous emphysema noted at the insertion site.
F. The drainage system is tipped over.
Answer: A, C, E, F
4. A client is admitted with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). The blood glucose is 550 mg/dL, pH is 7.15, and potassium is 5.4 mEq/L. Which prescriptions should the nurse implement?
A. Start an IV infusion of 0.9% Normal Saline.
B. Administer IV Sodium Bicarbonate.
C. Start a regular insulin drip at 0.1 units/kg/hr.
D. Administer Kayexalate orally.
E. Monitor neurological status hourly.
Answer: A, C, E
5. A patient with Addison’s Disease (Adrenal Insufficiency) arrives in crisis. Which signs and symptoms does the nurse expect?
A. Hyponatremia.
B. Hyperkalemia.
C. Hyperglycemia.
D. Hypotension.
E. Bronze pigmentation of the skin.
F. Fluid volume overload.
Answer: A, B, D, E
6. Which patients should the Charge Nurse assign to a Float Nurse from the Labor & Delivery unit?
A. A patient with a kidney stone awaiting lithotripsy.
B. A patient receiving chemotherapy for leukemia.
C. A patient post-hysterectomy requiring fundal checks.
D. A patient with a fractured femur in traction.
E. A patient with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate.
Answer: A, C, E
7. A patient with a Pulmonary Embolism (PE) is receiving IV Heparin. The PTT is 40 seconds (Control 30). What are the appropriate nursing actions?
A. Increase the infusion rate per protocol.
B. Decrease the infusion rate per protocol.
C. Stop the infusion immediately.
D. Re-draw the PTT in 6 hours.
E. Assess for bleeding gums or hematuria.
F. Administer Protamine Sulfate.
Answer: A, D, E
8. The nurse is caring for a patient with SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone). Which interventions are indicated?
A. Fluid restriction to 1000 mL/day.
B. Administering Desmopressin (DDAVP).
C. Seizure precautions.
D. Monitoring for weight gain.
E. Administering 3% Hypertonic Saline.
F. Encourage high-sodium diet.
Answer: A, C, D, E, F
9. A patient is in the Oliguric phase of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI). Which lab values does the nurse anticipate?
A. Serum Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL.
B. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L.
C. Phosphorus 5.5 mg/dL.
D. Calcium 7.8 mg/dL.
E. pH 7.30.
F. Specific Gravity 1.030.
Answer: A, C, D, E
10. Which assessment findings indicate a Tension Pneumothorax?
A. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side.
B. Tracheal deviation toward the unaffected side.
C. Absent breath sounds on the affected side.
D. Distended neck veins (JVD).
E. Hypotension.
F. Paradoxical chest movement.
Answer: B, C, D, E
11. The nurse is caring for a client with Cirrhosis and Hepatic Encephalopathy. Which food items should be restricted or carefully monitored?
A. Steak.
B. Eggs.
C. Dried beans.
D. Rice.
E. Sweet potatoes.
Answer: A, B, C
12. A patient with a history of Heart Failure reports a weight gain of 4 lbs in 2 days. Which questions are a priority?
A. "Are you sleeping with extra pillows?"
B. "Have you had a cough producing pink, frothy sputum?"
C. "Are your shoes feeling tight?"
D. "Did you eat Chinese food recently?"
E. "Have you had any leg cramping while walking?"
Answer: A, B, C, D
13. Which actions by the nurse maintain asepsis while inserting a Foley catheter?
A. Placing the sterile field on the over-bed table at waist level.
B. Testing the balloon with sterile water before insertion.
C. Keeping the sterile gloved hands above the waist.
D. Opening the sterile kit by unfolding the first flap towards the nurse.
E. Cleaning the meatus moving from the pubis toward the rectum.
Answer: A, C, E
14. A patient is suspected of having Appendicitis. Which interventions are contraindicated?
A. Administering a Fleet enema.
B. Applying a heating pad to the abdomen.
C. Keeping the patient NPO.
D. Administering IV analgesics.
E. Palpating the abdomen deeply.
Answer: A, B, E
15. Which clinical manifestations are associated with Cushing’s Syndrome?
A. Buffalo Hump.
B. Hirsutism.
C. Hypoglycemia.
D. Purple striae on abdomen.
E. Weight loss.
F. Moon face.
Answer: A, B, D, F
16. The nurse is teaching a patient about Warfarin (Coumadin). Which statements by the patient indicate understanding?
A. "I will increase my intake of spinach and kale."
B. "I should use a soft-bristle toothbrush."
C. "I will have my INR checked regularly."
D. "I can take aspirin for headaches."
E. "I will report black, tarry stools."
Answer: B, C, E
17. A patient is prescribed Lithium Carbonate. Which findings indicate toxicity?
A. Fine hand tremors.
B. Coarse hand tremors.
C. Polyuria and polydipsia.
D. Diarrhea and vomiting.
E. Serum level of 1.0 mEq/L.
F. Ataxia / Confusion.
Answer: B, D, F
18. Which medications are safe to administer via IV push?
A. Furosemide (Lasix).
B. Potassium Chloride (KCl).
C. Morphine Sulfate.
D. Vancomycin.
E. Adenosine.
Answer: A, C, E
19. A patient is taking Digoxin and Furosemide. Which symptoms should the patient report immediately?
A. Visual halos (yellow/green).
B. Nausea and vomiting.
C. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L.
D. Pulse rate of 52 bpm.
E. Urinary output increase.
Answer: A, B, D
20. A patient is receiving an infusion of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). The bag runs out, and the new bag has not arrived from the pharmacy. What is the priority?
A. Hang 0.9% Normal Saline.
B. Hang Dextrose 10% in Water (D10W).
C. Slow the rate to KVO (Keep Vein Open).
D. Check the blood glucose.
E. Discontinue the IV line.
Answer: B, D
21. The nurse is administering blood products. Which actions are correct?
A. Use a 22-gauge IV catheter.
B. Prime the tubing with Normal Saline only.
C. Administer within 30 minutes of receiving from the bank.
D. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes.
E. Warm the blood in a microwave if the patient is cold.
F. Infuse the unit over 6 hours to prevent overload.
Answer: B, C, D
22. Which food-drug interactions are correctly matched?
A. MAOIs + Pepperoni Pizza.
B. Tetracycline + Milk.
C. Warfarin + Vitamin K rich foods.
D. Calcium Channel Blockers + Grapefruit Juice.
E. Levothyroxine + Walnuts/Soy.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
23. A patient is prescribed Clopidogrel (Plavix). Which findings require follow-up?
A. History of Peptic Ulcer Disease.
B. Currently taking Ginkgo Biloba.
C. Platelet count of 250,000.
D. Scheduled for surgery in 3 days.
E. Reports bruising easily.
Answer: A, B, D, E
24. Which medications can cause Hyperkalemia?
A. Spironolactone.
B. Lisinopril.
C. Furosemide.
D. Hydrochlorothiazide.
E. Naproxen (NSAIDs).
Answer: A, B, E
25. A child is prescribed Methylphenidate (Ritalin). What education should be included?
A. Give the medication at bedtime.
B. Monitor height and weight.
C. Give with meals to prevent nausea.
D. Limit dietary caffeine.
E. It may cause dry mouth.
Answer: B, D, E
26. Which patients require Droplet Precautions?
A. Measles.
B. Influenza.
C. Pertussis (Whooping Cough).
D. Tuberculosis.
E. Bacterial Meningitis.
F. Varicella (Chicken Pox).
Answer: B, C, E
27. The nurse is using crutches to ambulate. Which instructions are correct?
A. Support weight on the axillae (armpits).
B. Keep elbows flexed at 30 degrees.
C. Place crutches 6 inches in front and to the side.
D. When going upstairs: "Good leg goes up first."
E. When going downstairs: "Bad leg goes down first."
Answer: B, C, D, E
28. A patient is in restraints. What are the required nursing actions?
A. Obtain a new order every 24 hours.
B. Check circulation and skin integrity every 30 minutes.
C. Tie the restraint to the bed rails.
D. Use a quick-release knot.
E. Offer fluids and toileting every 2 hours.
Answer: A, B, D, E
29. Which tasks can the RN delegate to the Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)?
A. Feeding a patient with dysphagia.
B. Measuring urine output from a Foley.
C. Reinforcing teaching on walker use.
D. Applying barrier cream to the buttocks after cleaning.
E. Performing a non-sterile dressing change.
F. Obtaining a sterile urine specimen from a catheter.
Answer: B, D
30. The nurse enters a room and sees a fire in the trash can. List the actions in priority order.
A. Activate the fire alarm.
B. Close the door to the room.
C. Move the patient out of the room.
D. Extinguish the fire.
Answer: C, A, B, D
31. A patient falls in the bathroom. Which actions should the nurse take?
A. Assess the patient for injury.
B. Help the patient back to bed immediately.
C. Notify the healthcare provider.
D. Document "Patient fell" in the medical record.
E. Complete an incident report and place it in the patient's chart.
F. Obtain vital signs.
Answer: A, C, D
32. Which cultural considerations are correctly matched?
A. Jehovah’s Witness: No blood transfusions.
B. Islam: No pork or alcohol; fasting during Ramadan.
C. Orthodox Judaism: Kosher diet (no mixing milk and meat).
D. Asian culture: Eye contact is always a sign of respect.
E. Hispanic culture: Illness may be viewed as an imbalance of hot/cold.
Answer: A, B, C, E
33. Correct technique for Donning PPE includes:
A. Gown first.
B. Mask second.
C. Goggles/Face Shield third.
D. Gloves last.
E. Gloves first.
Answer: A, B, C, D
34. Signs of impending pressure ulcer (Stage 1) include:
A. Non-blanchable erythema.
B. Open blister.
C. Skin temperature difference (warmer or cooler).
D. Exposed muscle.
E. Pain or tenderness in the area.
Answer: A, C, E
35. A nurse is instructing a patient on using a cane. Which instructions are correct?
A. Hold the cane on the strong side.
B. Move the cane and weak leg forward together.
C. Look at your feet while walking.
D. The cane should be at the level of the greater trochanter.
Answer: A, B, D
36. A pregnant client at 32 weeks reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. What interventions are contraindicated?
A. Abdominal Ultrasound.
B. Vaginal examination by the nurse.
C. Monitoring fetal heart tones.
D. Administering IV fluids.
E. Leopold maneuvers.
Answer: B
37. Which findings in a newborn are abnormal and require reporting?
A. Acrocyanosis (blue hands/feet) at 4 hours old.
B. Respiratory rate of 55.
C. Substernal retractions.
D. Jaundice appearing at 12 hours of life.
E. Single transverse crease on the palm.
F. Nasal flaring.
Answer: C, D, E, F
38. Postpartum Haemorrhage interventions include:
A. Massage the boggy fundus.
B. Administer Oxytocin (Pitocin).
C. Place the patient in Trendelenburg.
D. Administer Methylergonovine (Methergine).
E. Encouraging frequent voiding.
Answer: A, B, D, E
39. A child with Tetralogy of Fallot experiences a "Tet Spell." The nurse should:
A. Place the child in knee-chest position.
B. Administer 100% Oxygen.
C. Administer Morphine.
D. Start an IV fluid bolus.
E. Keep the child calm.
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
40. Signs of Pyloric Stenosis in an infant include:
A. Projectile vomiting.
B. Olive-shaped mass in the RUQ.
C. Currant jelly stools.
D. Peristaltic waves are visible before vomiting.
E. Failure to gain weight.
Answer: A, B, D, E
41. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate. Which finding indicates toxicity?
A. Urine output < 30 mL/hr.
B. Respiratory rate < 12/min.
C. Absent Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTRs).
D. Blood pressure 140/90.
E. Decreased level of consciousness.
Answer: A, B, C, E
42. Which vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Influenza (Inactivated).
B. MMR (Measles Mumps Rubella).
C. Tdap (Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis).
D. Varicella.
E. Live Attenuated Influenza (Nasal Spray).
Answer: B, D, E
43. A child with Cystic Fibrosis requires which dietary and medication management?
A. High-calorie, high-protein diet.
B. Pancreatic enzymes with every meal and snack.
C. Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K).
D. Low-sodium diet.
E. Chest physiotherapy.
Answer: A, B, C, E
44. Signs of Epiglottitis in a toddler:
A. Drooling.
B. Barking seal-like cough.
C. Tripod positioning.
D. High fever.
E. Dysphagia (trouble swallowing).
Answer: A, C, D, E
45. Care for a child with Sickle Cell Crisis includes:
A. Cold compresses to painful joints.
B. IV Hydration.
C. Oxygen therapy.
D. Opioid analgesics.
E. Bed rest.
Answer: B, C, D, E
46. A patient with Schizophrenia presents with Waxy Flexibility and Catatonia. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
A. Risk for violence.
B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements.
C. Impaired verbal communication.
D. Risk for deficient fluid volume.
Answer: B, D
47. Symptoms of Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium (Delirium Tremens) include:
A. Tachycardia.
B. Hypertension.
C. Visual hallucinations.
D. Somnolence.
E. Agitation.
F. Diaphoresis.
Answer: A, B, C, E, F
48. A patient with Bipolar Disorder is in a manic phase. Which room assignment is best?
A. A private room at the end of the hall.
B. A semi-private room near the nurses' station.
C. A private room near the nurses' station.
D. A room with a patient who has depression.
Answer: C
49. A client taking MAOIs (Phenelzine) should avoid which foods?
A. Aged Cheese.
B. Cured Meats (Salami).
C. Avocados.
D. Red Wine.
E. Fresh Cottage Cheese.
F. Beer.
Answer: A, B, C, D, F
50. Interventions for a patient with Anorexia Nervosa:
A. Allow the patient to eat alone.
B. Monitor the patient for 1 hour after meals.
C. Weigh the patient weekly in different clothing.
D. Set strict time limits for meals (e.g., 30 mins).
E. Focus conversation on food benefits.
Answer: B, D
Conclusion
SATA questions become far easier when you understand the logic behind each option. With consistent practice, you begin to see how clinical clues connect throughout your NCLEX-RN exam preparation. Tiju’s Academy continues to support learners with structured explanations, exam-focused strategies, and updated question banks. Keep practising, trust your progress, and remember: every SATA question you solve brings you one step closer to wearing that RN badge with pride. Join now at the best NCLEX-RN training centre in Kerala!
